📖 Read the passage, then answer the questions below
Caveat emptor -- "let the buyer beware" -- is the general rule governing the sale of goods, placing on the buyer the responsibility to examine goods before purchase and satisfy themselves as to quality and suitability. Under this general rule, a seller does not automatically guarantee that goods sold are fit for any particular purpose the buyer may have in mind, or even of generally satisfactory quality, and a buyer who purchases goods without inspecting them, or without relying on any assurance from the seller, generally bears the risk of any defect that a reasonable inspection would have revealed.
The rule is subject to several well-recognised exceptions, each shifting responsibility back onto the seller in specific circumstances. First, where a buyer expressly or by implication makes known to the seller the particular purpose for which goods are required, and relies on the seller's skill or judgement to supply suitable goods, and the goods are of a description the seller ordinarily supplies in the course of business, there is an implied condition that the goods will be reasonably fit for that purpose. Second, where goods are sold by description, there is an implied condition that the goods will correspond with that description, regardless of whether the buyer inspected them. Third, where a seller actively conceals a defect that would not be revealed by an ordinary examination, or makes a false representation about the goods that the buyer relies upon, the buyer is not bound by caveat emptor with respect to that concealed or misrepresented defect. Fourth, where goods are bought by sample as well as by description, there is an implied condition that the bulk of the goods will correspond with both the sample and the description.
Caveat emptor also does not apply, and the exceptions above become especially significant, where a buyer has no meaningful opportunity to inspect the goods before purchase at all, since the rule's underlying rationale -- that a buyer who can examine goods should bear the risk of defects a reasonable examination would reveal -- has no application where no such meaningful examination was actually possible.
Where none of the recognised exceptions applies, and the buyer had a genuine opportunity to inspect the goods before purchase, the buyer generally cannot later complain of a defect that a reasonable examination would have revealed, since the risk of such a defect remains with the buyer under the general rule.
Question 1
Assertion (A): Caveat emptor means that a seller is always free from any liability whatsoever regarding the goods sold, without any exception.
Reason (R): The doctrine is subject to several recognised exceptions, including implied fitness for a made-known purpose, correspondence with description, active concealment of defects, and correspondence with a sample.
Which of the following is correct?
Question 2
A buyer orders "grade A wheat" from a supplier based purely on this written description, without inspecting any sample beforehand, since the wheat is to be delivered later. Upon delivery, the wheat is found to be a lower, inferior grade than described. Can the buyer hold the seller liable despite never having inspected the goods before ordering?
Question 3
A buyer tells a hardware store clerk that she needs paint suitable for use on an outdoor metal surface exposed to heavy rain, and relies entirely on the clerk's recommendation of a specific paint, which the store ordinarily sells for exactly this purpose. The recommended paint turns out to be unsuitable for outdoor metal use and peels within days. Can the buyer hold the seller liable?
Question 4
A buyer purchases a used car "as is" after having a full opportunity to test drive and inspect it, choosing not to have a mechanic check it. After purchase, the buyer discovers a worn clutch that a reasonable inspection, including a test drive, would likely have revealed. Can the buyer hold the seller liable for this defect?
Question 5
A seller, when asked directly by a buyer whether a used motorcycle has ever been in an accident, falsely states that it has not, when in fact it was previously severely damaged and repaired. The buyer relies on this false statement in deciding to purchase the motorcycle without further investigation. Can the buyer hold the seller liable despite having had some opportunity to inspect the motorcycle?